## Aptitude Questions

### Quantitative Aptitude

1. A person crosses a 600 metre long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km/hr?

• 3.6
• 7.2
• 8.4
• 10

Speed = 600/(5*60) m/sec = 2m/sec.

Converting m/sec to km/hr = 2*18/5 km/hr.

= 7.2 km/hr.

So, Option B.

2. An airplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 1 ⅔ hours, it must travel at a speed of:

• 300 kmph
• 360 kmph
• 600 kmph
• 720 kmph

Distance = 240*5 = 1200 km.

Speed = Distance/Time.

= 1200/(1 ⅔) = 1200/(5/3) = 720 kmph

So, Option D.

3. If a person walks at 14 kmph instead of 10 kmph, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance traveled by him is:

• 50 km
• 56km
• 70 km
• 80 km

Let the actual distance by x km.

Then, x/10 = (x + 20)/14.

Or, 14x = 10x + 200.

Or, 4x = 200.

Or, x = 50 km.

So, Option A.

4. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:

• 100 kmph
• 110 kmph
• 120 kmph
• 130 kmph

Let the speed of the car be x kmph.

Then, speed of the train = 150x/100 = 3x/2 kmph.

So, 75/x – 75/(3x/2) = 125/(10*60).

Or, x = 120 kmph.

So, Option C.

5. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

• 9
• 10
• 12
• 20

Due to stoppages, it covers 9 kms less.

Time taken to cover 9 kms = 9*60/54 min = 10 min.

So, Option B.

1. A bank offers 5% C.I. calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is:

• Rs.120
• Rs.121
• Rs.122
• Rs.123

Amount = Rs. (1600 * (1 + 5/200)^2 + 1600 * (1 + 5/200))

= Rs. (1600*41*81)/(40*40)

= Rs. 3321

So, C.I. = Rs. (3321 – 3200) = Rs. 121

So, Option B.

2. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% p.a. is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:

• 625
• 630
• 640
• 650

Let the sum be Rs. X.

Then, C.I. = (x * (1 + 4/100)^2 – x) = 676x/625 – x = 51x/625.

S.I. = (4*2*x)/100 = 2x/25

So, 51x/625 – 2x/25 = 1.

Or, x = 625.

So, Option A.

3.There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest of Rs. 12000 after 3 years at the same time?

• Rs. 2160
• Rs. 3972
• Rs. 6240
• None of these

Let P = Rs. 100. Then, S.I. = Rs. 60 and T = 6 years.

So, R = (100*60)/(100*6) = 10% p.a.

Now, P = Rs. 12000. T = 3 years and R = 10% p.a.

So, C.I. = Rs. 12000 * ((1 + 10/100)^3 – 1)

= Rs. 3972

So, Option B.

4.What is the difference between compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1.5 years at 4% p.a. Compounded yearly and half-yearly?

• Rs. 2.04
• Rs. 3.06
• Rs. 4.80
• Rs. 8.30

C.I. when interest is compounded yearly = Rs. 5000 * (1 + 4/100) * (1 + 0.5*4/100) = Rs. 5304.

C.I. when interest is compounded half-yearly = Rs. 5000 * (1 + 2/100)^3 = Rs. 5306.04.

So, Difference = Rs. (5306.04 – 5304) = Rs. 2.04.

So, Option A.

5.The C.I. on Rs. 30000 at 7% p.a. is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is:

• 2
• 2.5
• 3
• 4

Amount = Rs. (30000 + 4347) = Rs. 34347.

Let time be n years.

Then, 30000 * (1 + 7/100)^n = 34347.

Or, n = 2 years.

So, Option A.

1.An accurate clock shows 8 o’ clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o’ clock in the afternoon?

• 144 degrees.
• 150 degrees.
• 168 degrees.
• 180 degrees.

Angle traced by the hour hand in 6 hours = 360/12 * 6 = 180 degrees.

So, Option D.

2. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10.25 is:

• 180 degrees.
• 192.5 degrees.
• 195 degrees.
• 197.5 degrees.

Angle traced by hour hand in 125/12 hours = 360/12 * 125/12 = 312.5 degrees.

Angle traced by minutes hand in 25 minutes = 360/60 * 25 = 150 degrees.

So, Reflex angle = 360 degrees – (312.5 – 150) degrees = 197.5 degrees.

So, Option D.

3.A clock starts at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:

• 145 degrees.
• 150 degrees.
• 155 degrees.
• 160 degrees.

Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hours = 360 degrees.

Angle traced by hour hand in 5 hours 10 mins or 31/6 hours = 360/12 * 31/6 = 155 degrees.

So, Option C.

4. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o’ clock, the true time is:

• 59 7/12 minutes past 3.
• 4 p.m.
• 58 7/11 minutes past 3.
• 2 3/11 minutes past 4.

Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. = 9 hours 15 minutes = 37/4 hours.

3 minutes 5 seconds of this clock = 3 minutes of the correct clock.

Or, 37/720 hours of this clock = 1/20 hours of the correct clock.

Or, 37/4 hours of this clock = 1/20 * 720/37 * 37/4 hours of the correct clock = 9 hours of the correct clock.

So, the correct time is 9 hours after 7 a.m. = 4 p.m.

So, Option B.

5. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?

• 32 8/11 minutes.
• 36 5/11 minutes.
• 90 minutes.
• 96 minutes.

55 minutes spaces are covered in 60 minutes.

60 minutes  spaces are covered in 60/55 * 60 minutes = 65 5/11 minutes.

Loss in 64 minutes = 65 5/11 – 64 = 16/11 minutes.

Loss in 24 hours = 16/11 * 1/64 * 24 * 60 = 32 8/11 minutes.

So, Option A.

1. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many days can it be done?

• 564
• 645
• 756
• None of these.

We may have (3 women and 2 women) or (4 men and 1 woman) or (5 men) only.

So, Required no. of ways = (7C3 * 6C2) + (7C4 * 6C1) + 7C5

= 525 + 210 + 21 = 756

So, Option C.

2. In how many ways can letters of the word ‘CORPORATION’ be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

• 810
• 1440
• 2880
• 50400

In the word ‘CORPORATION’, we treat the vowels OOAIO as one letter.

Thus, we have CRPRTN(OOAIO).

This has 6 + 1 letters of which R occurs 2 times and the rest are different.

No. of ways in which these letters can be arranged = 7!/2! = 2520.

Now, 5 vowels in which O occurs 3 times and the rest are different, can be arranged in 5!/3! = 20 ways.

So, required no. of ways = 2520 * 20 = 50400.

So, Option D.

3. In how many ways can letters of the word ‘LEADING’ be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

• 360
• 720
• 5040
• None of the above.

The word ‘LEADING’ has 7 letters.

When the vowels EAI are always together, they can be supposed to form 1 letter.

Then, we have to arrange the letters LNDG(EAI).

Now, 4 + 1 letters can be arranged in 5! ways = 120 ways.

The vowels EAI can be arranged among themselves in 3! ways = 6 ways.

So, required no. of ways = 120*6 = 720 ways.

So, Option B.

4. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?

• 210
• 1050
• 25200
• 21400

No. of ways of selecting 3 out of 7 consonants and 2 out of 4 vowels = 7C3 * 4C2 = 210.

No. of groups, each having 3 consonants and 2 vowels = 210.

Each group contains 5 letters.

No. of ways of arranging 5 letters among themselves = 5! = 120

So, required no. of ways = 210*120 = 25200.

So, Option C.

5.In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘LEADER’ be arranged?

• 72
• 144
• 360
• 720

The word ‘LEADER’ contains 6 letters.

So, required no. of ways = 6!/2! = 360.

So, Option C.

1. Two trains are moving in opposite directions @ 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is:

• 45
• 47
• 48
• 50

Relative speed = (60 + 90) km/hr.

= (150 x 5/18) m/sec.

= 125/3 m/sec

Distance covered = (1.10 + 0.9) km = 2 km = 2000 m.

Required Time = (2000 x 3/125) sec = 48 sec.

So, Option C.

2.Two trains of equal length 140 meters are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks at the same speed. If the trains cross each other 14 seconds, find the speed of each train.

• 30 km/hr
• 32 km/hr
• 34 km/hr
• 36 km/hr

Let the speed of each train be x km/hr

Relative speed = x + x = 2x …………….. (1)

Also, Relative speed = (Total distance covered (sum of length of trains))/(Time taken by  trains to cross each other).

Relative speed = (140 + 140)/14 = 280/14 = 20 m/s

From equation (1) and (2),

2x = 20

x = 10 m/s

We need the answer to be in km/hr.

So, x = 10 * 18/5 = 36km/hr.

So, Option D.

3. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 seconds. What is the length of the goods train?

• 230 m
• 240 m
• 260 m
• 270 m

Speed = 72* 5/18 m/sec = 20 m/sec.

Time = 26 seconds.

Let the length of the train be x metres.

Then, (x + 250)/26 = 20.

Or, x = 270 m.

So, Option D.

4. A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long?

• 65 seconds
• 89 seconds
• 100 seconds
• 150 seconds

Speed = 240/24 m/sec = 10 m/sec.

So, Required time = (240 + 650)/10 = 89 seconds.

So, Option B.

5. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track is 240 metres ahead of the engine of a 120 metres long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the jogger?

• 3.6 seconds
• 18 seconds
• 36 seconds
• 72 seconds

Speed of train relative to jogger = (45 – 9) km/hr = 36 km/hr = 36 * 5/18 m/sec = 10 m/sec.

Distance to be covered = (240 + 120) m = 360 m.

So, Time taken = 360/10 seconds = 36 seconds.

So, Option C.

1.Today is Monday. After 61 days it will be:

• Wednesday
• Saturday
• Tuesday
• Thursday

Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.

So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.

After 61 days, it will be Saturday.

So, Option B.

2. How many weekends are there in a year?

• 52
• 53
• 103
• 104

Weekend means Saturday & Sunday together. In total, we have 52 weeks in a year. So there are 52 weekends in a year.

Normally, we have 104 weekend days.

We know that each normal year has 365 days or 52 weeks plus one day, and each week has two weekend days, which means there are approximately 104 weekend days each year.

Whereas, in a leap year, we have 366 days; it adds one more day to the year. And what makes the change is the starting day of the year.

So, Option B.

3. How many days are there in x weeks x days?

1. 7x * x
2. 8x
3. 14x
4. 7

No. of days in x weeks x days = (7x + x) days = 8x days.

So, Option B.

4. If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day on 6th March, 2004?

• Sunday
• Saturday
• Tuesday
• Wednesday

The year 2004 is a leap year. So, it has 2 odd days.

But, February 2004 is not included as we are calculating from March, 2004 to March, 2005 and so we have one odd day only.

So, the day on 6th March, 2005 will be 1 day beyond the day on 6th March, 2004.

So, 6th March, 2004 is one day before Monday, ie., Sunday.

So, Option A.

5. Which of the following is not a leap year?

• 700
• 800
• 1200
• 2000

Centuries divisible by 400 are leap years.

So, 700 is not a leap year.

So, Option A.

1. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

• 1/2
• 2/5
• 8/15
• 9/20

Here, S = {1,2,3,4,……,20}.

Let E = Event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5 = {3,6,9,12,15,18,5,10,20}.

So, P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 9/20.

So, Option D.

2. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither red nor green?

• 1/3
• 3/4
• 7/19
• 8/21

Total no. of balls = 8 + 7 + 6 = 21.

Let E = Event that the ball drawn is neither red nor green.

= Event that the ball drawn is blue.

So, n(E) = 7.

So, P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 7/21 = 1/3.

So, Option A.

3. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

• 1/6
• 1/8
• 1/9
• 1/12

In two throws of a dice, n(S) = 6*6 = 36.

Let E = Event of getting a sum of 9 = { (3,6) , (4,5) , (5,4) , (6,3) }.

So, P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 4/36 = 1/9.

So, Option C.

4. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most 2 heads?

• 3/4
• 1/4
• 3/8
• 7/8

Here, S = {TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, HHT, HTH, THH, HHH}

Let E = Event of getting at most 2 heads.

Then E = {TTT, TTH, THT, HTT, HHT, HTH, THH}

So, P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 7/8.

So, Option D.

5. In a class, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three students are selected at random. The probability that 1 girl and 2 boys are selected is:

• 21/46
• 25/117
• 1/50
• 3/25

Let S be the sample space and E be the event of selecting 1 girl and 2 boys.

Then, n(S) = no. of ways of selecting 3 students from 25 students = 25C3 = 2300.

And, n(E) = 10C1 * 15C2 = 10 * 105 = 1050.

So, P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 1050/2300 = 21/46.

So, Option A.

1.A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:

•  720
• 900
• 1200
• 1800

2 (15 + 12) * h = 2 (15 * 12).

h = 180/27 = 20/3 m.

Volume = (15 * 12 * 20/3) m cubic = 1200m^3.

So, Option C.

2. The dimensions of a hall are 40 m, 25 m and 20 m. If each person requires 200 cubic meters, find the number of persons who can be accommodated in the hall.

• 150
• 140
• 120
• 100

Length of the hall = 40 m.

Breadth of the hall = 25 m.

Height of the hall = 20 m.

Volume of the hall = l * b * h.

= 40 * 25 * 20 = 20,000 m^3.

Space occupied by each person = 200 m^3.

Number of persons that can be accommodated in the hall =

Volume of the hall/Space occupied by one person = 20000/200 = 100 persons.

So, Option D.

3. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so formed is:

• 12 pi cm^3
• 15 pi cm^3
• 16 pi cm^3
• 20 pi cm^3

We have r = 3 cm and h = 4 cm.

So, Volume = ⅓*pi*r^2*h = ⅓*pi*3^2*4 = 12 pi cm^3.

So, Option A.

4. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is:

• 75 cu. m
• 750 cu. m
• 7500 cu. m
• 75000 cu. m

1 hectare = 10000 m^2.

So, Area = 10000*1.5 = 15000 m^2.

Depth = 5/100 m = 1/20 m.

So, Volume = Area * Depth = 15000 * 1/20 = 750 m^3.

So, Option B.

5. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day. If the average displacement of water by a man is 4 m^3, then the rise in the water level in the tank will be:

• 20 cm
• 25 cm
• 35 cm
• 50 cm

Total volume of water displaced = 4*50 m^3 = 200 m^3.

So, Rise in water level = 200/(40 * 20) = 0.25 m = 25 cm.

So, Option B.

1.Two successive discounts of 10% and 5% are equivalent to a single discount of

• 18.5%
• 26.5%
• 14.5%
• None of these

Discount D1 = 10%

Discount D2 = 5%

equivalent discount = D1  + D2  – D1.D2/100

= 10 + 5 – 10*5/10 = 15 – 0.5 = 14.5%

So, Option C

2. P makes a profit of 12% on a transaction. Had he bought the article at 10% less and sold it for 4% less, by what percent his profit percentage would have increased?

• 65%
• 62.25%
• 4%
• None of these

Let the cost price of the article = ₹ 100

Selling price = 100 + 100 * 12/100 = ₹112

When cost price = 100 – 100 * 10/100 = ₹90

and selling price = 112 – 112 * 4/100 = ₹107.52

Profit % = ((107.52-90)/90) * 100 = 19.47%

Increase in profit percent

((17.47-12)/12) * 100 = 62.25%

So, Option B

3. A sum of INR 15000 is put on compound interest. This sum becomes 2 times in 5 years at this rate. What would the original sum become after 20 years?

• 60000
• 225000
• 140000
• None of these

Principal (P) = ₹ 15,000.

Time (T) = 5 years.

Amount (A) = 2 × 15000 = 2P.

So, 2P = P(1 + r/100)^5 => (1 + r/100)^5 = 2

Now, (1 + r/100)^20 = 24 = 16 times

Hence, amount becomes = 16 × 15000 = ₹2,40,000

So, Option D

4. A sum of INR 27800 is invested for 2 years in 2 different schemes, both on simple interest. The rates of interest are 14% and 11% in the 1st and the 2nd schemes respectively. The total interest after 2 years is INR 7016. What sum was invested in the 2nd scheme?

• ₹ 12800
• ₹ 16200
• ₹ 14600
• None of these

Let amount invested in first and second schemes are x and (27800 – x) respectively.

ATQ,

x * 2 * 14/100 + (27800 – x) * 2 * 11/100 = 7016

6x/100 = 7016 – 6116

x = 900 * 100/6 = 15000

Hence, amount invested into second scheme = 27800 – 15000 = 12,800

So, Option A

5. A and B can finish a work in 10 days and 15 days respectively. They together work on it for 5 days and then the rest of the work is finished by C in 2 days.They get INR 450 for finishing this work. What should be the shares of A, B and C respectively?

• A = ₹ 180, B = ₹120, C = ₹ 150
• A = ₹ 225, B = ₹ 120,C = ₹ 105
• A = ₹ 225, B = ₹ 150, C = ₹75
• None of these

Work done by A and B in 5 days

= 5(1/10 + 1/15) = 5((3+2)/30) = 5/6

Rest work = 1 – 5/6 = 1/6

Amount of work finished by C in 2 day = 1/6

\C will finish whole work in 6 × 2 = 12 days.

Now, L.C.M. of 10, 15 and 12 = 60.

Unit of work done by them in one days are 60/10, 60/15 and 60/12 i.e. 6, 4 and 5 units respectively.

As A and B works for 5 days and C works for 2 days. Ratio of work done by them= 6 × 5 : 4 × 5 ; 5 × 2 = 3:2:1.

Now, 3x + 2x + x = 450

x = 75

Amount received by A = 3x = 3 × 75 = ₹ 225

Amount received by B = 2x = 2 × 75 = ₹150

Amount received by C = x = 75 = ₹ 75.

So, Option C

1.There are 10 people in a family: the average age of the 2 grandparents is 64 years; the average age of 2 uncles is 42 years; the average age of the 2 aunts is 38 years and the average age of 4 cousins is 16 years. What is the average age of the family members?

• 8
• 40
• 352
• None of these

Sum of the age of two grandparents

= 2 × 64= 128 years.

Sum of the age of two uncles

= 2 × 42 = 84 years.

Sum of the age of two Aunts

= 2 × 38 = 76years

Sum of the age of four cousins

= 4 × 16 = 64 years.

Average age of the family

= (125 + 84 + 76 +64)/10 = 35.2

So, Option C

2.The median salaries of 3 B-Schools A, B and C are in the ratio 7:6:5 in the year 2019. The median salaries of these 3 B-schools are in the ratio 3:3:4 in the year 2020. If the median salary of A increased by 20% from 2019 to 2020, by what percent did the median salary of B increase?

• 40%
• 38%
• 183%
• None of these

Let median salaries of A, Band C in 2019 are 7x, 6x and 5x respectively.

A’s salary in 2020 is 7x * 120/100 = 8.4x

Ratio of A and B salary in 2020 = 3 : 3.

Therefore, 3/3 = 8.4x/B’s salary

B’s salary in 2020 = 8.4x

% increase in B’s salary

= ((8.4x – 6x)/6x) * 100 = 40%

So, Option A

3.The combined age of a mother and daughter duo is 42 years. The product of their ages, 5 years back, was 60 years. What is the present age of the mother?

• 40 years
• 38 years
• 32 years
• None of these

Let present age of Mother and daughter are M and D respectively.

ATQ,

M + D = 42                                                 …(i)

(M – 5)(D – 5) = 60

MD –5(M + D) + 25 = 60.

MD – 5 (42) + 25 = 60.

MD – 210 + 25 = 60

MD = 245

Now, M – D = sqrt((M + D)^2 – 4MD)

= sqrt((42)^2 – 4 * 245)

therefore, M–D=28

From (i) and (ii), M = 35

Hence, Mother’s age = 35 years.

So, Option D

4.A is 2 times B and B is 2 times C. The average of the reciprocals of A, B and C is 7/12. What is the value of A?

• 2
• 4
• 1
• None of these

ATQ, A = 2B and B = 2C.

Average = (1/A + 1/B + 1/C)/3 = 7/12

Therefore, 1/A + 1/B + 1/C = 7/4        1/4C + 1/2C + 1/C = 7/4

C = 1, B = 2 and A = 4.

So, Option B

5.What is the value of log 8/log 64?

• 25
• 1/3
• 5
• None of these

log8/log64 = log8/log(8)^2 = 1/2 * log8/log8 = 0.5

So, Option C

1.Which of the following is a factor of?

• X2 – 1
• X2 + 3
• X2 – 3
• None of these

f(x) = x4 + 4x2 + 3

= x4 + 3x2 + x2  + 3

= (x2 + 3)(x2 + 1)

Hence, factors are (x2 + 3) and (x2 + 1)

So, Option B

2. If one of the sides of a square is increased by 20% and the other side of decreased by 20% to get a rectangle, what percent of the area of the square will be the area of this rectangle?

• 96%
• 4%
• 60%
• None of these

Let side of the square is l.

then, area A = 1 * 1 = 12

When one side increases by 20% and other decreases by 20%

New area A’ = (1 + 20*1/100) * (1 – 20*1/100)

= 1.2*1 * 0.8*1 = 0.96 * 12

Required percent =

A’/A * 100 = (0.96*12/12) * 100 = 96%

So, Option A

3. There is a cube of edge 8 cm. This cube is immersed in a water-filled vessel with the dimension of its rectangular base (12cm × 20 cm). By how many cms will the level of water raise in the vessel?

• 75 cm
• 13 cm
• 03 cm
• None of these

Volume of water displaced = Volume of the cube = 12 × 20 × height (h) = 8 × 8 × 8.

Height (h) = 8*8*8/12*20 = 2.13cm

So, Option D

4. What is the value of sin + tan ?

• (sqrt(2) – 1)/sqrt(2)
• (2 – sqrt(2))/2
• (sqrt(2) + 1)/sqrt(2)
• None of these

sin 45o + tan 45o

= 1/sqrt(2) + 1 = (sqrt(2) + 1)/sqrt(2)

So, Option C

5. What is the value of sin / cos?

• 5
• 1
• (sqrt(2) – 1)/sqrt(2)
• None these

sin 42o/cos 48o = sin 42o/cos(90o – 42o) = sin 42o/sin 42o = 1

So, Option B

1.What will be the missing term in the series:

11,88,……,6336, 57024, 456192?

• 704
• 862
• 764
• None of these

So, Option D

2. A bag has a total of 108 toys. These toys are of 3 different colours: black, green and white. If a toy is taken out randomly, the probabilities of getting a black and a green are 1/3 and 4/9 respectively. What is the number of white toys?

• 36
• 24
• 51
• None of these

Let number of black and green toys in the box are m and n respectively.

then, probability of getting a black toy

= mC1/108C1 = m/108 = 1/3 (given)     therefore, m = 108/3 = 36

Probability of getting a green toy

= nC1/108C1 = n/108 = 4/9                   therefore, n = 108*4/9 = 12*4 = 48

Hence, number of white toy = 108 – 36 – 48 = 24.

So, Option B

3. The Average weight of three men A, B and C is 84 kg. D joins them and the average weight of the four becomes 80 kg. If E whose weight is 3 kg more then that of D replaces A, the average weight of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg. The weight of A is.

• 65 kg
• 70kg
• 75 kg
• 80 kg

Total weight of A, B and C = 84 × 3 = 252 kg.

D’s weight = 80 × 4 – 84 × 3 = 68 kg.

E’s weight = 68 + 3 = 71 kg.

Total weight of B, C, D and E = 79 × 4 = 316 kg.

Then, total weight of B and C = 316 – 68 – 71 = 177kg.

Hence. A’s weight = 252 – 177 = 75 kg.

So, Option C

4. The sum of the digits of a number is 10. The difference between this number and a number formed with the same digits, but in the reverse order, is 18. What is the square of formed by reversing its digits.

• 2116
• 4096
• 1764
• None of these

Let two digits are x and y.

ATQ, x + y = 10 and, (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 18.

(x – y) = 2

From (i) and (ii), we get

x = 6 and y = 4.

Hence, number = 64

Hence, square of (46) = (46)2 = 2116.

So, Option A

5. We have 60, 76 and 84 loaves of bread of companies A, B and C respectively. We have to supply these bread to retail stores so that a store has the bread of just one of the companies and tail the stores have the same number of loaves. What can be the minimum number of stores?

• 4
• 44
• 55
• None of these

H.C.E of 60,76 and 84 = 4.

Minimum number of stores

= 60/4 + 76/4 + 84/4 = 15 + 19 +21 = 55

So, Option C

1. There are 96 girls and 120 boys in s sports event. The sports teacher wants to arrange in rows in such a way that each row contains equal number of students and each row should have either girls or boys in it, not both. What is the greatest number of students that can be arranged in each row?
• 20
• 22
• 24
• 26
2. If x  = sqrt(12 + sqrt(140))/sqrt(12 – sqrt(140))  what is the value of(x + 1/x)2 – (x – 1/x)2
• 6
• 4
• 2
• 1
3. If  5√5  * 625 *  4√5 = 5n +1/5 what will be the value of n?
• 6.55
• 4.55
• 5.55
• 7.55
4. Due to the pandemic, the sale of cricket balls in a sport shop decreased by 15%. If its price is also reduced by 15% what will be the effect on the total revenue collection?
• 30% decrease
• 75% decrease
• 50% increase
• 50% decrease
5. A person is able to buy 2kg more ₹ 198, due to a reduction of in the price of rice. What is the difference between the original and the reduced rate of rice per kg?
• ₹ 0.50
• ₹ 1.00
• ₹ 0.25
• ₹ 0.75
1. When a owner sells his house for ₹ 26,400, he loses 20%. At what price should he have sold the house in order to get profit of 12%?
• ₹ 35,000
• ₹ 36,000
• ₹ 33,000
• ₹ 36,960
2. A dry fruit seller sells his fruits at 5% loss on the price because of an urgent need of money. But due to some technical error in his weighing machine, it measures 19g instead of 20g. What is his profit or loss percentage?
• 5% profit
• 7.143% profit
• 5% loss
• No profit no loss
3. A certain sum of money invested at simple interest amounts to ₹ 990 in 3 years and to ₹ 1,125 in 1.25 years. What is the rate of interest per annum?
• 13.5%
• 13%
• 12.5%
• 12%
4. Raju lent out a certain sum on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at a certain rate of interest per annum. If the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 2 years and that of 3 years is 10:31, what is the rate of interest per annum?
• 10%
• 12.5%
• 15%
• 7.5%
5. Two numbers A and B are respectively 30% and 60% less than the third number. By what per cent A is greater than B?
• 35%
• 45%
• 75%
• 85%
1. The number of 10 paisa, 20 paisa, 25 paisa and 50 paisa coins contained in a bag are in the ratio 1/5:1/4:1/3:1/2,  amounts to ₹ 240. The total value of 25 paisa and 50 paisa coins is:
• ₹ 200
• ₹ 180
• ₹ 160
• ₹ 150
2. The capacities of three container X, Y and Z are 1, 2 and 4 litres respectively. Initially X is empty, while Y and Z are full of water and milk respectively. X is filled from Y. Y is replenished from Z and X is emptied into Z. If this process is repeated once more, then what will be the ratio of milk in Y to water in Z?
• 1:1
• 3:5
• 4:5
• 4:3
3. Pipes A and B can empty a full tank in 12 hours and 18 hours respectively and C is filling pipe which can fill the empty tank in k hours. When all the three pipes are opened together, then 1/9 th part of the tank was emptied in 1 hour. What is the value of k?
• 30
• 32
• 36
• 40
4. Two engines having different speeds are to run on parallel tracks with the starting point of the slower being ahead of the faster by 5km and 6 km in two separate cases. What is the ratio between the distances that the faster train has to travel in these cases to catch up with the slower?
• 2:3
• 5:6
• 5:12
• 3:4
5. Rekha covers a certain distance by car. Had she moved 5km/h faster, she would have taken 30 minutes lesser time to cover the distance. If she had moved 2km/h slower, she would have taken 40 minutes more time to cover the distance. Find the distance on kms.
• 20
• 15
• 10
• 5

1.Five years ago, Rahul’s age was 5 years less than three times of the sum of the ages of his three children. After five years, his age will become 5 years more than the sum of the ages of his children. Then, what is the present age of Rahul?

• 40 years
• 45 years
• 50 years
• 55 years

2. The sum of the height and the radius of a solid right circular cylinder is 41 cm. if its total surface area is 2706 cm2, then its volume (in cm3) is closest (Take pi = 22/7 )

• 9568
• 9584
• 10568
• 10584

3. If mean of 29 observations is 33 and on adding one more observation the new mean becomes 34 what is the value of the 30th observation?

• 34
• 55
• 63
• 68

4. What is the Median time for the period, 1st February to 20th September of a leap year?

• Midnight between 26th and 27th May
• 12 Noon of 27th May
• Midnight between 27th and 28th May
• 12 Noon of 28th May

5. Four teams P, Q, R and S played Round Robin League (each playing against each other) matches, and the Points Table is as under:

 Teams Number of matches played Number won Number lost Number drawn Points Scored P 3 2 0 1 7 Q 3 2 1 0 6 R 3 0 1 2 2 S 3 0 2 1 1

If A is the overall average points scored by four teams per match and B is the points scored by Q id the number of matches it had won, lost and drawn be the same, then what is the difference (correct to two decimal places) between A and B?

• 33
• 33
• 67
• 67

### Logical Reasoning

1.Find the missing term of the series:61,74, 89, 97,…., 121, 145

• 117
• 118
• 116
• None of these

So, Option A

2.Some As are Bs and some Bs arc Cs. Which of the following is necessarily true?

I. Some As are Cs                             II.  All Cs are As

• Only (I) follows
• Only(II) follows.
• Both (I) and (II) follows.
• Neither (I) nor (II) follow.

Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follow.

So, Option D

3. If H<G=J and J>K, then which of the following is necessarily true.

I. H>K             II.  G>K

• only (I) is true.
• only (II) is true.
• both (I) and (11) are true.
• Neither (I) nor (II) are true.

H < G = J > K

(I) H > K (Not sure) (II) G > K (True).

So, Option B

4.There are 40 people standing in a row. A is 12th from the left and B is 9th from the right. How many people are there in between A and B?

• 18
• 19
• 20
• None of these

Total number of people = 40.

A’s position from left = 12th.

B’s position from right = 9th.

Number of people between A and B = 40 – l2 – 9 = 19

So, Option B

5.Create meaningful words from the following and then find the odd one out.

• HIFS
• TBOA
• UOBY
• GATO

HIES — FISH

TBOA —BOAT

UOBY — BUOY

GATO—GOAT

Here, Fish, Boat and Buoy are somehow related to water, whereas Goat is not related to water.

So, Option D

1.Find the missing term in the series: A15, B10, D3.

• C6
• C7
• E3
• None of these

So, Option A

2. You are facing North. You take a right turn and walk for 5 Kms. You again take a right turn and walk for 3 Kms. You now take a left turn and walk for 2 Kms. You now take a 90-dcgree turn to your left. Which direction are you facing now?

• East
• West
• North
• South

Finally, you are facing towards North direction

So, Option C

3. Find the missing number that should come at the place of question mark (?).

 17 13 19 272 156 342 306 ? 380
• 182
• 184
• 187
• 191

 17 13 19 272 156 342 272 + 2 × 17 = 306 156 + 2 × 13 = 182 342 + 2 × 19 = 380

So, Option A

4. The diagram below shows the number of people who attended seminars on Physics, Chemistry, Math and Biology. What is the number of people who attended exactly any two seminars?

• 21
• 36
• 38
• 42

Number of people, who attend exactly two seminars:

Physics and Math = 14.

Physics and Biology = 7.

Math and Biology = 5.

Chemistry and Math = 10.

Total number of people, who attend exactly any two seminars = 14 + 7 + 5 + 10 = 36.

So, Option B

5. If P means division, T means addition, M means subtraction and D means multiplication, then the value of: 8 D 1 6 P 3 2 T 1 6 D 3 2 P 6 4 is:

• 12
• 23
• 6
• 3

P -> ÷       T -> +        M -> –        P -> ×

8 D 16 P 32 T 16 D 32 P 64

=> 8 × 16 ÷ 32 + 16 × 32 ÷ 64

=> 4 + 8 = 12

So, Option A

1.Directions: In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered 1 and 11. Consider everything in the statement to be true and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: The government of state ‘Y’ has decided to remove hutments and buildings that have come up beside the roads to broaden them in city ‘A’.

Courses of action:

I. The government of state ‘Y’ should rehabilitate the affected residents of hutments/buildings.

II. The government should compensate the residents of targeted houses with a reasonable amount.

• Only I follows
• Only II follows
• Either I or II follow
• Neither I or II follow

Both courses of actions I and II follows. Either government should rehabilitate the affected residents of hutments/Buildings. Or, they should compensate the residents of targeted houses.

So, Option C

2. Some have suggested a correlation between not wearing polished shoes and being lethargic– that those who don’t polish their shoes are generally lethargic than those who do. This, however, is not the case. I work at the employment exchange and the majority of the applicants have polished shoes. Which of the following assumptions is made by the author of the argument?

• Lethargy and polished shoes are learned behaviours.
• People with polished shoes are never unemployed.
• Lethargy has its origins in an individual’s family background.
• People who apply for employment at the employment exchange are lethargic.

Assumption made by the Author of the argument is “Lethargy has its origins in an individual’s family background”.

So, Option C

3.

• 18
• 11
• 8
• 7

sqrt(20-4) = sqrt(16) = 4

sqrt(45 – 20) = sqrt(25) = 5

sqrt(120 – 20) = sqrt(100) = 10

sqrt(90 – 26) = sqrt(64) = 8

So, Option C

4. If DIP is coded as 172203, then what is the code for “TAKE”?

• 07152418
• 07142418
• 33142418
• 07142518

 D 1 P | | | 4 9 16 Letter’s position

=> Code = (4 + 13), (9 + 13), (16 + 13) = 172229

Similarly,

= 1722(29 – 26) = 172203

 T A K E | | | | 20 1 11 5 Letter’s position

=>  Code = (20 + 13), (1 + 13)(11 + 13),(5 + 13)

= 33 14 24 18 = (33 – 26) 14 24 18

= 07 14 24 18.

So, Option B

5. In the following figure, the Pentagon, the Rectangle, the Triangle and the Circle represent the number of students in a class who play cricket. Soccer, Hockey and Baseball respectively.

Which of the following is the highest?

• Number of students who play at least one of Hockey or Baseball.
• Number of students who play exactly two of the sports.
• Number of students who play exactly one of the four sports,
• Number of students who play at least one of Cricket or Soccer.

(a) Number of students who play at least one of Hockey or Baseball = 7 + 8 + 6 + 3+11 + 8 + 4 + 5 + 9 = 66

(b) Number of students who play exactly two of the sports =8+7+5+5= 25.

(c) Number of students who play exactly ones of the four sports =10 + 9 + 9+7 = 35.

(d) Number of students who play atleast ones of cricket or soccer = 10 + 8 + 6 + 7 + 9 + 3 + 11 + 8 + 4 + 5 = 71

So, Option D

1.Two adjacent faces of a cube are painted red and out of the remaining sides, two opposite faces are painted green. The cube is then cut into 125 equal smaller cubes. How many smaller cubes will have at most two sides painted?

• 121
• 123
• 117
• 113

Total number of smaller cubes = 125.

Number of smaller cubes have 3 painted faces = 2.

Hence, number of smaller cubes have at most two painted faces = 125 – 2 = 123.

So, Option B

2. Prashant forgot his five-digit ATM pin. However he remembers that the ATM PIN has a cube of a number in the 3rd place and prime numbers in the first and the last places. The even prime number is in the 1st He also remembers that the digit in the 3rd place is equal to the product of the digits in the first and the second places and the sum of the digits in the first and the second places is equal to the digit in the fourth place. The digit in the last place is half the digit in the 4th place.

What is his ATM PIN?

• 24863
• 24683
• 26483
• 23468

Hence, required number is ‘24863’.

So, Option A

3. Refer to the sequence of letters given below and answer the questions that follow.

N F C I O R O O I U M N T S M C T U A A N R T 1 E I C T O A N N T I

If all the vowels from the given sequence arc removed, then which letter will be the 8th letter to the right of the 5th letter to the left of the 10th letter from the right?

• R
• T
• C
• S

Sequence of letters after removing all vowel.

N F C R M N T S M C T N R T C T N N T

Letter which is 8th to the right of the 5th to the left of the 10th from the right end = 10 + 5 – 8 = 7th from the right and that is letter ‘R’.

So, Option A

4. A traveller travels 10 km towards the East from Pune. He then turns 90 degrees towards his right and travels 5 km and again takes a 90 degrees turn towards his right and walks 5 km. What direction is he now with respect to Pune?

• South-West
• South-East
• North-West
• North-East

Hence, person is in south-east from Pune city.

So, Option B

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting on 8 chairs kept symmetrically around a circular table and equidistant from each other. All of them are facing towards the centre of the table. Some information about the order in which they are sitting is provided as follows:

• F is sitting exactly opposite to C.
• D is not next to F.
• H is the only one sitting between G and C.
• E is sitting two places to the right of B and is not next to F.

5. Which of the following is the correct position of H?

• Left of C
• Exactly Opposite of B
• Exactly Opposite of E
• Cannot Be Determined

B is exactly opposite to H

So, Option B

6. Which of the following statements is not correct?

• B is to the immediate right of F.
• G is sitting two places to the light of F.
• There are only six persons whose sitting positions can be exactly determined.
• All of these.

Sitting position of all eight people can be exactly determined

So, Option C

1.There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A and the grandfather of F. There are two lathers, three brothers and a mother in the group. How many male members are there in the group?

• One
• Two
• Three
•  Four

male members in the group are D, A, B and F. Hence, there are 4 males in the family.

So, Option D

2. Directions: In the following question, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options (a, b, c and d), the right figure to fit in the missing figure.

Option C

3. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Option C

4.  I. Yes: Studies have shown that breathing in vehicular pollution reaches dangerous levels when the exposure to such pollution has been more than five hours in a day.

II. No. Breathing in vehicular pollution for more than five hours a day does not lead to lung cancer as was revealed in a study to analyze the effect of vehicular pollution.

• Only I is strong.
• Only II is strong.
• Both I and II are strong
• Neither I nor II are strong.

Here, statement I is wrong.

So, Option A

1.Choose the odd term in the following series

DIM; GLP; JOT; MRV; PUY; SXB

• MRV
• DIM
• GLP
• JOT

2. Choose the pair similar to the following

ITWN : LQZK

• JZFY : MWIV
• MBTZ : OLQS
• IJSX : LWBJ
• FGMO : PLKE

3. Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?), from the following figure series.

4. Given below is a question followed by two statements, I and II, each containing some information. Decide which of the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question

Among six members of the family, O, P, Q, R, S and T, how many are females?

Statements

1. Q is wife of P and mother of T, R is grandmother of O and mother of P
2. T is granddaughter of S.
• Statement I alone is sufficient
• Statement II alone is sufficient
• Both I and II together are sufficient
• Both I and II together are not sufficient

1.Given below is a question followed by two statements, I and II, each containing some information.

Decide which of the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question.

How far is Janny from her starting point? If

1. Janny moves 4 km towards South, then 3 km towards right, 5 km towards left, 3 km towards left and 3 km towards right and stop.
2. Janny moves 7 km towards South, then 4 km towards left, 2 km towards right, 4 km towards right and finally 3 km towards left and stop.
• The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answers the question.
• The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
• The data of both statement I alone and statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
• The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

2. Determine whether the following data is sufficient for the statements maintained on its basis.

A home delivery retail provision store sells goods around ₹ 1,500 per day, Of the total number of food item sold in a month, they sell around 1000 loaves of bread, 80 kg of sugar, 100 packets of tea leaves, 100 kg of flour, 50 packets of coffee and 200 kg of detergents, 25 litres of cooking oil. The sale of toiletries is far more than that of cereals.

1. The ratio of the sale of toiletries as compared to food items is 1:2
2. The income from tea, coffee and sugar is more than the sale earnings from flour.
• Sufficient for both A and B
• Sufficient for B but not for A
• Sufficient for A but not for B
• Sufficient neither for A nor B

3. I a coded form, A # B means A is the paternal grandfather of B, A \$ B means A is the son of B and A @ B means A is the brother of B. Which of the following equations shows that P is the father of S?

• P @ Q \$ R # S
• P # Q @ R \$ S
• P # Q \$ R @ S
• P \$ Q # R @ S

4. The age of the mother is twice of her son. If the sum of their ages is 60, what is the age of the mother?

• 30 years
• 40 years
• 48 years
• 36 years

5. There are five persons in a group Raju, Sanjay, Deepak, Suresh and Mukesh. Deepak is elder to Raju, but not tall as Suresh, Suresh is younger to Sanjay and taller that Mukesh and Raju. Sanjay is taller than Mukesh but not younger than Raju. Mukesh is elder to Sanjay but is the shortest of all the friends. Who among the following is the eldest?

• Sanjay
• Deepak
• Suresh
• Either Deepak or Mukesh

1.Study the given information carefully.

For a job selection in a company the following conditions need to be fulfilled.

The candidate must:

• be at least 23 years and at most 28 years as on 01 December 2020.
• have at least 65% marks in written exam and 40% marks in interview.
• possess a graduation degree with minimum 60% marks.
• have one-year work experience.
• In case a candidate who fulfils all conditions except (iv) but possess 80% marks in graduation then case is to be referred to manager.

In the following question, details of candidates are given. Select the appropriate option accordingly.

Anshika was born on 07 March 1997. She completed her graduation with 75% marks. She has a work experience of 2 years. She scored 70% marks in written exam and 55% marks in interview.

• If candidate is to be selected
• If candidate is to be rejected
• If case is to be referred to manager
• If data is insufficient to conclude.

2. The following are the criteria of selecting a Lawyer for a legal firm.

The candidates must:

• have completed LLB with at least 75% marks.
• be more than 28 years and less than 35 years of age as on October 1, 2020
• have secured more than 85% marks in the interview and at least 70% marks in the written test.

However, if the candidate fulfils all the above criteria EXCEPT

criterion (d) at (b), but has 3 years experience of practicing in district court, his/her case is to be referred to the Chief Manager

criterion (e) at (c), but has secured more than 80% marks in L.L.M., his/her case is to be referred to the Chief Legal Advisor.

Sakshi Kuman has obtained 81% marks in L.L.M. and 75% marks in L.L.B. She was 26 years of age when she completed her L.L.B. in 2013. She has obtained 66% marks in the written test and 75% marks in interview. He also has 3 years experience of practicing in district court.

• She would be selected
• She would not be selected
• Her case is to be referred to the Chief Manager
• Her case is to be referred to the Chief Legal Advisor

3. A statement is followed two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

The educational framework now requires to go through a process of change so as to cater to individuals according to their interests and talents.

Assumptions:

I. The current education system is geared to mainstream individuals without due regard to their unique potentialities.

II. Learners find less scope for nurturing their individual interests and talents in the present system.

• Only I is implicit
• Only II is implicit
• Both I and II are implicit
• Neither I nor II is implicit

4. Two Statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

No cylinder is a drum.

All balls are cylinders.

I. No drum is a cylinder.

II. Some cylinders are balls.

III. No ball is drum.

• Only conclusion I and II follows.
• Only conclusion II and III follow.
• Only conclusion I and III follow.
• All of the conclusions follow

5.  In the following diagram, the circle stands for ‘farmers’, the hexagon stands for ‘tax-payers’, the square stands for ‘females’, the triangle stands for ‘folk-artists’. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons for that segment.

How many farmers are tax-payers also but are neither folk-artists nor females?

• 15
• 20
• 10
• 6

1. In the following figure, the triangle represents researchers, the square represents historians, the rectangle represents lectures and the circle represents singers. Find the researcher who is neither historian nor lecturer but singer and the lecturer who is researcher and singer but not historian.

• R,T
• K, P
• W, M
• N, R

2. How many dots are there opposite to the side having ‘four’ dots?

• Two
• One
• Five
• Six

3. The figure marked ‘X’ lying flat with patterns on it is folded to form a box such that the patterns/blanks show on the faces of the box. Four possible boxes A, B, C and D are given below some of which can be formed and some cannot be formed. Choose from the alternatives the boxes that can be formed.

• A and C only
• C and D only
• B and D only
• A and D only

4. The sequence of folding a piece of square paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the figures marked X, Y and Z. How would the paper look when unfolded?

### Verbal Ability

1.What is the meaning of “spilling the beans”?

• To get scared extremely
• To reveal a secret
• To conceal the information

Spill the beans: To reveal something that was meant to be a secret

We had everything organized for Bruce k surprise party, but Kate accidentally spilled the beans to him at work.

So, Option B

2. What is the meaning of “Talking nineteen to the dozen”?

• Talking consciously
• Running hurriedly
• Keeping up
• Speaking continuously

Talk nineteen to the dozen: To speak very rapidly, hurriedly, and/or energetically.

My aunt can get talking nineteen to the dozen if you get her on a topic she k passionate about.

So, Option D

3. Identify figure of speech in the following sentence.

“I wandered lonely as a cloud”

• Simile
• Personification
• Onomatopoeia
• Hyperbole

In the given sentence, the figure of speech used is ‘simile’.

Simile: A figure of speech involving the comparison of one thing with another thing of a different kind, used to make a description more emphatic or vivid (e.g. as brave as a lion).

-the use of similes as a method of comparison.

Personification: The attribution of a personal nature or human characteristics to something non-human, or the representation of an abstract quality in human form.

Onomatopoeia: The formation of a word from a sound associated with what is named (e.g. cuckoo, sizzle).

Hyperbole: Exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be taken literally.

So, Option A

4. Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence.

“A child is a fire to lit, not a vase to be filled.”

• Onomatopoeia
• Personification
• Simile
• Metaphor

The figure of speech used in the given sentence is, Metaphor.

Metaphor: A metaphor is a figure of speech that is used to make a comparison between two things that aren’t alike but do have something in common. Unlike a simile, where two things are compared directly using like or as, a metaphor’s comparison is more indirect, usually made by stating something is something else.

So, Option D

5. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank.

What prevented her_______ coming?

• From
• While
• In

Here, ‘from’ will be used. From expresses the origination of something from something else, something coming from somewhere, or some person. For example: Smriti comes from New York.

So, Option A

1. Which conjunction can fill in the following sentence?

He had a severe tooth pain _________ he visited a doctor.

• In
• So
• Lest
• Because

“So” can be used to fit in the blank of the given sentence and make it grammatically and contextually correct.

So, Option B

1. Which Adverb can be filled in the following sentence?

He appeared _______ excited to see his mother.

• Slightly
• Enough
• So
• Fairly

“So” is as adverb of degree and it can be used to fill the blank of the given sentence and make it contextually and grammatically correct.

So, Option C

1. Fill in the blank with most appropriate word.

A________ of singers

• Class
• Team
• Choir
• Troupe

Here is the detailed information about the collective nouns.

A choir of singers.             A class of students.

A team of players.            A troupe of dancers.

So, Option C

1. Fill in the blank to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The world ________ better place to live.

• will be a better
• would be a better
• should be a good
• would be a good

‘will be a better’ will make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

So, Option A

1. Which of the following is correctly spelt?
• Irriterievable
• Irretrievable
• Irretreivable
• Irritreiveble

“Irretrievable” is the correctly spelt word among the given options.

Irretrievable: not able to be retrieved or put right.

So, Option B

1.Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.

He apologized __________

• Predominantly
• Proactively
• Profusely
• Purportedly

“Profusely” will fill the blank to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Profusely: to a great degree; in large amounts. Predominantly: mainly, for the most part.

Proactively: by taking action to control a situation rather than just responding to it after it has happened.

Purportedly: as appears or is stated to be true, though not necessarily so; allegedly.

So, Option C

2. Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase.

A ship was_______.

• Holed up
• Halting on
• Hauled at
• Heed at

“hole up” means to stay in a particular place as a refuge from something.

– to take shelter somewhere.

– to hide somewhere.

So, Option A

3. Which of the following is a compound word?

• Knowledge
• Butterfly
• Raincheck

Compound words: Combining two or more words in order to make a new word having a new meaning. They function as different parts of speech, dictating what form the compound word acquired.

Raincheck:

1. A ticket given for later use when a sporting fixture or other outdoor event is interrupted or postponed by rain.
2. A coupon issued to a customer by a shop, guaranteeing that a sale item which is out of stock may be purchased by that customer at a later date at the same reduced price.

So, Option D

4. What is meaning of Largesse?

• Globalized
• Liberal
• Saturate
• Acquittal

Largesse: liberal giving (as of money) to or as if to an inferior.

So, Option B

5. Which of the following words is correctly spelt?

• Conseintious
• Consciention
• Conscientious
• Consientious

The correctly spelt word is

Conscientious: wishing to do one’s work or duty well and thoroughly.

So, Option C

1.One part of the sentence below may contain an error, Identity the part

I have to been asked/to keep quiet, /and that to, /in stern terms!

• I have to been asked
• To keep quiet
• And that too
• In stern terms!

2. One part of the sentence below may contain an error Identity the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’

The 9.2 km Atal Tunnel at Rohtang in Himachal Pradesh/is the longest highway tunnel in the world/connecting Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley

• The 9.2 km Atal Tunnel at Rohtang in Himachal Pradesh
• is the longest highway tunnel in the world
• connecting Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley
• No error

3. One part of the sentence below may contain a grammatical error Identify the part. If there is no error choose ‘No error’

India’s chess Olympiad gold-winning team captain Vidit Gujrathi says that the experience of playing against and defeating iconic Viswanathan Anand was the most special moment of his life

• India’s chess Olympiad gold-winning team captain
• captain Vidit Gujrathi says that the experience of playing against and defeating iconic
• iconic Viswanathan Anand was the most special moment of his life
• No error

4. Read the passage carefully. Then select the words/options listed A to D which best fill in the blanks:

Opera refers to a _______ an form originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as much through music, both vocal and  __________, as it is through the lyrics contrast in musical theater an actor’s dramatic performance is ____________, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theater such as scenery, costumes, and acting However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken. The singers arc accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full ________ orchestra.

Options

Blank 1:

1. dramatic
2. medica
3. mysterious
4. spun

Blank 2:

1. violin
2. poems
3. instrumental
4. action

Blank 2:

1. stylish
2. primary
3. supporting
4. primal

5. Fill In the blanks in the sentences given below with suitable options

It’s no longer clothes or books or makeup items that people want to buy online. Even when it comes to buying the everyday groceries people are _________ 1 __________  turning online, amid the pandemic. A recent study indicates that online grocery shopping is likely to _________ 2 __________ more than two-fold as more shoppers are now ordering items online

Blank1:

1. occasional
2. increasingly
3. rarely
4. excessively

Bank 2:

1. flourishing
2. expansion
3. reduce
4. grow
• 1A 2B
• 1B 2D
• 1C 2C
• 1D 2A
1. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below

The Indian Air Force was ________ established on 8th October 1932 as a part of an auxiliary air force of the British Empire and was known as the Royal Air Force. It was only after India became a republic in 1950 that the name __________ to Indian Air Force.

• official/has been changed
• officially/ was changed
• judiciously/ has changed
1. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of words from the options given below

What did the painter do _____________ himself from falling?

When he felt the ladder _____________ he grabbed the gutter to save himself from falling

• To save/ began slipping
• For saving/ began to slip
• To save/ beginning to slip
• To save/ begin to slip
1. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate options

She did not bring a blanket for _______ so I gave her _____

• her, mine
• myself, hers
• herself, mine
• us, hers
1. For the four sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph below S1 and S4 are given. From the options P, Q, and R, choose appropriate sentences for S2 and S3 respectively.

S1: ‘Unemployment’, may be defined as a phenomenon wherein an individual

S2: _____________________________

S3: _____________________________

S4: The unemployment rate of a country is indicative of its socio-economic health

Options,

P:   Similarly, the term ‘labour force’ is applied to the total number of individuals within the population who are willing and capable of doing work

Q:  And the unemployment rate is usually measured in percentages; the number of individuals without work out of the total ‘labour force’ of the country or specific groups

R:   The most accepted classification of unemployment recognizes two broad types; Voluntary and involuntary unemployment

• RP
• PQ
• RQ
• QP
1. For the four-sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From the options P, Q and R, choose appropriate sentences for S2 and S3 respectively

S1: The Panchatantra is a legendary collection of short stories from India

S2: _____________________________

S3: _____________________________

S4: These extraordinary animal tales in verse and prose are liked, perhaps even loved, by people of every are group

P:   Later, many authors and publishers worked hard to make these fables accessible to and readable by lay persons

Q:  Originally composed in the 2nd century B.C. Panchatantra is believed to have been written by Vishnu Sharma along with many other scholar

R:   The purpose behind the composition was to implant moral values and governing skills in the young sons of the king through animal stories

• QR
• PQ
• RP
• PR
1. For the four sentence (S1 to S2) in the paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From the options P, Q and R, choose appropriate sentences for S2 and S3 appropriately

S1: Although the Novel Coronavirus affects every person and community, it does not do so equally

S2: _____________________________

S3: _____________________________

S4: In developing countries, the most vulnerable – including employed in the informal economy, older people, children, indigenous people – risk being hit even harder

P:   In advanced economies, fatality rates have been highest among marginalized groups

Q:  Instead it has exposed and exacerbated existing inequalities and injustices

R:   Women and girls are facing new barriers and new threats

• PQ
• QR
• PR
• QP
1. You are going to read a text about working with a remote team. Some sentences are missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence that you do not need to use.

Aisha had been very successful managing her team in Edinburgh and was asked by the company to lead a remote team for an important two-year project. Keen to demonstrate her leadership abilities to the head office. Aisha got her team members together for a remote meeting. But right from that first meeting she realized that was going to be a different challenge

(1) _______ Lucia kept asking about really specific details, while Aisha was hoping to use the meeting to get to know the team members and identify priorities. Archie and Lucia kept accidentally talking at the same time and when they didn’t speak, there was an uncomfortable silence. Valentina hardly said a word (2) _______ without these visual clues, Aisha had no idea whether people were interested lost, confused or bored.

1. No one had their cameras on, so there was none of the usual communication through body language or facial expressions
2. Compared to a face-to-face meeting the remote team is not prederred by all the managers
3. For a start, Archie was late for the meeting by about 15 minutes because of ‘technical problems’.
• (1)- A, (2)- C
• (1)- B, (2)- A
• (1)- A, (2)- B
• (1)- C, (2)- A
1. You are going to read an extract from the opening remarks of WHO Director at a media briefing on Covid-19. Some sentences are missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence that you do not need to use.

We understand that people are reeling under fear and uncertainty in these times of the pandemic ________ 1 ________. But as we get more data we are understanding this virus, and the disease it causes, more are more. This virus is not SARS, it’s not MERS and it’s not influenza ________ 2 ___________. Both Covid-19 and influenza cause respiratory disease and spread the same way, via small droplets of fluid from the nose, mouth of someone who is sick.

Options:

1. It is a unique virus with unique characteristics
2. Initially people through it was a form of malaria
3. Fear is a natural human response to any threat, especially when it’s a threat we don’t completely understand
• (1)- A, (2)- B
• (1)- C, (2)- B
• (1)- B, (2)- C
• (1)- C, (2)- A
1. You are going to read a text about a railway project in the Saharan region. Some sentences are missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap(1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence that you do not need to use

Trans-Saharan Railway was a project to build a rail line south through Algeria to sub-Saharan Africa (1) __________ But Algiers was comparatively near France and possesses, moreover, its own means of defence, so that if it and the other parts if French Africa could be firmly knit together by a railroad there would be little to fear from an outside toe (2) ________ Such a road would bring the different parts of the country into touch with one another and would greatly facilitate their economic conquest.

Options:

1. Besides the strategic reasons in favor of a Trans-Sahara railroad, there were political and economic ones as well
2. The southern portions of the French African Empire were practically isolated, the vast interior regions presenting an almost insurmountable barrier between them and Algiers. So that in case if a war with a strong naval power like England, they would be in great danger
3. As far back as 1880 some preliminary surveys to the south of Algiers were made by exploring parties
• (1)- A, (2)- C
• (1)- B, (2)- C
• (1)- C, (2)- B
• (1)- B, (2)- A
1. Two sentences have been removed from the text below. Read the text and then match the missing sentences to fill up Blank 1 and Blank 2. You will need to choose two options out of four – P, Q, R, S, provided

In Siberia, the temperature can fall as low as seventy degree centigrade below zero. The intense cold makes life immensely difficult and dangerous for anyone unaccustomed to it.

• _____________ When this happens, the topsoil thaws to a depth of about two meters and can support rich vegetation
• __________________

P:   The Siberian Husky is a hardy and compact dog, and is known to be friendly fastidious and dignified

Q:  Though parts of the region are colder than the North Pole itself the temperature in summer may reach 40°C

R:   The summer days are so long that the earth stores enough heat to bear a variety of flowers which blossom between the threes

S:   As many as 2,500 inmates considered enemies of the state were executed here during the Soviet Union’s political repression campaign of 1937-1938, and it’s believed that no one ever escaped

• (1)- Q, (2)- R
• (1)- P, (2)- Q
• (1)- P, (2)- S
• (1)- Q, (2)- S

1.Which of the following conversations does NOT use formal language?

• A: Will you be able to submit the project by Friday?

B:  Yup!!Sure!

• A: I want to talk to your Director Marketing Mr. Sameer Bhatia Can you connect me to him?

B: Sure give me a minute

• A: It’s raining cats and dogs. Are you going to cancel the picnic you had planned today

B: I guess we will have to

• A: Will you be interested in working for our company if we offer you a job?

B: Definitely. It will be my privilege

2. Which one the following sentences uses formal language?

• Don’t freak out things are under control now!
• As per our telephonic conversation today, we are agreeable to proceed with the transaction
• Nice to meet you yesterday look forward to you confirmation regarding the deal
• Sorry, Guys we can’t male it next week!

3. Which one of the following sentences uses formal language?

• I am greatly obliged to you for permitting me to go
• Hey, how lovely you look!
• Pull yourself together it’s not the end of the world!
• Can you repeat that? I didn’t catch the names

4. Which statement best summarises what the writer is saying in the passage?

• People are often confused and irrational in their behaviour when faced with challenges.
• People need someone to control them and regulate their public behaviour.
• People are guided according to their individual personalities in their choices and decisions.
• People make many wrong choices when they are in a difficult situation

5. In the fifth paragraph the writer states that individuals often:

• sacrifice long-term benefits in favour of short-term pleasures.
• get carried away by the influence of powerful pressures.
• are swayed by peer pressure to change their opinions.
• overlook short-term benefits for long-term advantages.
1. What does the writer call the traditional economics model?
• Systematic error
• Rational choice
• Standard policy
• Mixed preference
2. Which of the following action words does the writer use to describe the implicit purpose of behavioural economics in human behaviour?
• To appeal
• To restrain
• To blend
• To nudge
3. How much time gets reduced between Manali and Leh if the tunnel is used?
• Nine and a quarter hours
• Four to five hours
• Six hours
• Forty-six hours
4. Which meaning of the phrase cut off is applicable in the passage?
• To prevent someone from continuing what they are saying.
• To remove something by cutting it.
• To prevent someone from ever receiving your money or property
• To make a place difficult or impossible to enter, leave, or communicate with.
5. What is the name of the mountains through which the tunnel is constructed?
• Pir Panjal
• Rohtang
• Lahual
• Spiti

### Data Interpretation

Study the following line graph and answer the questions, Exports from three Companies over the Years (in ₹ crore)

1. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three Companies together are equal?
• 1995 and 1998
• 1996 and 1998
• 1997 and 1998
• 1995 and 1996

Total exports of the three Companies X. Y and Z together, during various years are :

In 993 = ₹ (30 + 80 + 60) crores = ₹ 170 crores.

In 994 = ₹ (60 + 40 + 90) crores =  ₹ 190 crores.

In 995 = ₹ (40 + 60 + 120) crores = ₹ 220 crores.

In 1996 = ₹ (70 + 60 + 90) crores = ₹ 220   crores.

In 1997 = ₹ (100 + 80 + 60) crores = ₹ 240 crores.

In 1998 = ₹ (50 + 100 + 80) crores = ₹ 230 crores.

In 1999 = ₹ (120 + 140 + 100) crores = ₹ 360 crores.

Clearly, the total exports of the three Companies X. Y and Z together are same during the years 1995 and 1996.

So, Option D

1. Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is approximately what percent of the average annual exports for Company Z?
• 87.12%
• 89.64%
• 91.21%
• 93.33%

Analysis of the graph: From the graph it is clear that

1. The amount of exports of Company X (in crore ₹) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 30, 60, 40, 70, 100, 50 and 120 respectively.
2. The amount of exports of Company Y (in crore ₹) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 80, 40, 60, 60, 80, 100 and 140 respectively.
3. The amount of exports of Company Z (in crore ₹) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 90, 120, 90, 60, 80 and 100 respectively.

Average annual exports (in ₹ crore) of Company Y during the given period

=  1/7(80 + 40 + 60 + 60 + 80 + 100 + 140) = 560/7 = 80

Average annual exports (in ₹ crore) of Company Z during the given period

=  1/7(60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100) = 600/7 = 85.71

Required percentage

= [(80/600)/7 * 100]% = 93.33%

So, Option D

1. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y the minimum?
• 1996
• 1995
• 1994
• 1997

The difference between the exports from the Companies X and Y during the various years are :

In 1993 = ₹ (80 – 30) crores = ₹ 50 crores.

In 1994 = ₹ (60 – 40) crores = ₹ 20 crores.

In 1995 = ₹ (60 – 40) crores = ₹ 20 crores.

In 1996 = ₹ (70 – 60) crores = ₹ 10 crores.

In 1997 = ₹ (100 – 80) crores = ₹ 20 crores.

In 1998 = ₹ (100 – 50) crores = ₹ 50 crores.

In 1999 = ₹ (140 – 120) crores = ₹ 20 crores.

Clearly, the difference is minimum in the year 1996

So, Option A

1. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998?
• ₹ 15.33 crores
• ₹ 18.67 crores
• ₹ 20 crores
• ₹ 22.17 crores

Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1993

= [1/3 * (30 + 80 + 60)]crores = 170/3 crores

Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1998

= [1/3 * (50 + 100 + 800] crores = 230/3 crores

Difference = [230/3 – 170/3] crores

= ₹ 60/30 crores = ₹ 20 crores

So, Option C

1. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than the average annual exports car the given years?
• 2
• 4
• 3
• 5

Average annual exports of Company Z during the given period

= 1/7(60 + 90 + 120 + 90+60 + 80 + 100)

= ₹ 600/7 crores = ₹ 85.71 crores

From the analysis of graph, the exports of Company Z are more than the average annual exports of Company Z (i.e., ₹ 85.71 crores) during the years 1994, 1995, 1996 and 1999.

So, Option B

The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a Book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it. Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book

1. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay ₹ 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these books?
• ₹ 19.450
• ₹ 21.200
• ₹ 21,950
• ₹ 22,950

Let the amount of Royalty to be paid for these books be ₹ r

Then. 20 : 15 = 30.600 : r

r = ₹ 30600 *15/20= ₹ 22,950.

So, Option D

1. What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?
• 15°
• 24°
• 54°
• 48°

Central angle corresponding to Royalty

= 15% of 360°

= 15/100 × 360°= 54°

So, Option C

1. The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is ₹ 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?
• ₹ 36
• ₹ 37.50
• ₹ 42
• ₹ 44.25

Clearly, marked price of the book = 120% of C.P.

Also, cost of paper = 25% of C.P

Let the cost of paper for a single book be ₹ n.

Then. 120 : 25 = 180 : n

n = ₹ (25 * 180/120) = ₹ 37.50

So, Option B

1. If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to ₹ 82.500 then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?
• ₹ 187.50
• ₹ 191.50
• ₹ 175.00
• ₹ 180.00

For the publisher to earn a profit of 25%. S.P. = 125% of C.P.

Also, Transportation Cost = 10% of C.P.

Let the S.P. of 5500 books be ₹ x.

Then, 10 : 125 = 82500 : x

x = ₹(125 * 82500/10) = ₹ 10,31,250.

S.P. of one book

= ₹ (1031250/5500)= ₹ 187.50

So, Option A

1. Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by :
• 5%
• 33.5%
• 20%
• 25%

Printing Cost of book = 20% of C.P.

Royalty on book = 15% of C.P.

Difference = (20% of C.P.) – (15% of C.P) = 5% of C.P.

Percentage difference

= difference/printing cost * 100%

= 5/20 * 100% = 25%

So, Option D

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The graph given below represents the number of users of two broadband services A and B across 5 cities P, Q. R, S and T.

1. What is the total number of users of brand B across all give cities together?
• 2700
• 3000
• 3100
• 2900

Total users of brand B across five cities = 600 + 500 + 650 + 700 + 550 = 3000

So, Option B

1. The number of users of brand A in city T is what percent of the number of users of brand B in city Q?
• 150
• 110
• 140
• 160

Brand A users in city T = 700

Brand B users in city Q = 500

Required % = 700 / 500 × 100 = 140%

So, Option C

1. What is the average number of users of brand A across all five cities together?
• 560
• 570
• 580
• 590

Total users of Brand A across five cities = 500 + 550 + 600 + 550 + 700 = 2900 Average = 2900

Average = 2900/5 = 580

So, Option C

1. What is the difference between the total number of users of brand A and B together in city R and the total number or users of brand A and B together in city P?
• 170
• 140
• 130
• 150

Brand A and B users in city R = 600 + 650 = 1250

Brand A and B users in city P = 500 + 600 =1100

Required difference = 1250 – 1100 = 150

So, Option D

1. What is the respective ratio of the number users of brand A in city P to the number of users of brand B in city S?
• 5 : 7
• 4 : 7
• 2 : 5
• 3 : 4

Brand A users in city P = 500

Brand B users in city S = 700

Ratio = 500/700 = 5/7 = 5 : 7

So, Option A

Refer to the table and answer the given questions.

NA refers the data which is not needed for a particular question. The price details of 5 products are given below and some of them are missing. Take the data of the First row for the first question and the second row for the second question and so on.

 Product MP CP SP Profit % Loss% Profit / Loss Mobile NA 8400 – 5% 5% – Investment NA NA NA NA 40% NA 2 Bags NA – – 14% 14% NA TV 40% 54,000 – – NA NA Machine NA NA NA 30% 20% NA

1. Rahul purchased a mobile and sold it for a loss (loss % given in the table). From that money, he purchased another article and sold it for a gain of (Profit % given in the table). What is the overall gain or loss?
• Profit of ₹ 21
• Profit of ₹ 24
• Loss of ₹ 21
• Loss of ₹ 24

CP = 8400

SP = 8400 × 95/100 = 7980

CP = 7980

SP = 7980 × 105/100 = 8379

Difference = 8379 – 8400 = 21 Loss

So, Option C

1. A, B and C invests ₹ 8.000. 12.000 and 10,000 respectively in a business. At the end of the year the balance sheet shows a loss of initial investment. Find the share of loss of B.
• 4000
• 4500
• 4800
• 5000

Total loss after one year = 30000 * 40/100 = 12000

Share of B = 6/15 * 12000= 4800

Note:

Ratio A : B : C

8 : 12 : 10

4 : 6 : 5

So, Option C

1. A Shopkeeper sells two bags for ₹ 500 each. On one, he gets % profit (as per the table) and on the other he gets % loss (as per the table). His profit or loss in the entire transaction was?
• 64/25 % Gain
• 49/25 % Gain
• 64/25 % Loss
• 49/25 % Loss

% = x

Loss % = x2/100 = 142/100

= 196/100 = 49/25%

So, Option D

1. The price of TV was marked up by % (as per the table). It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked price. What was the profit percent of the cost price?
• 10%
• 11%
• 15%
• 12%

40 – 20 + [40 – (–20)/100] = 20 – 8 = 12%

So, Option D

1. Preethi sold a machine to Shalini at a profit of % (as per table). Shalini sold this machine to Arun at a loss of % (as per table). If Preethi paid ₹5000 for this machine, then find the cost price of machine for Arun?
• 6200
• 5200
• 4800
• 4750

• R1 = 30% R2 = 20%

5000 × 130/100 × 80/100 = ₹ 5200

So, Option D

Railway Distance. Time Taken and Speed of Between New Delhi to Bhubaneswar

 Station Name Distance (In KM) Time Taken (HRs) Speed (In km/ph) New Delhi – Kanpur Central 440 4.72 93.22 Kanpur Central – Mughal Sarai JN 346 4.03 85.86 Mughal Sarai JN – Gaya JN 203 2.22 91.44 Gaya JN – Koderma 77 1.98 38.89 Koderma – Bokaro Steel City 125 2.18 57.34 Bokaro Steel City – Tatanagar J N 151 2.92 51.71 Tatanagar JN – Kharagpur JN 134 1.75 76.57 Kharagpur JN- Balasore 119 1.37 86.86 Balasore – Bhadrak 62 1.13 54.87 Bhadrak – Cuttack 115 1.32 87.12 Cuttack – Bhubaneswar 28 0.92 30.43

Railway Timetable: New Delhi – Bhubaneswar Rajdhani Express

 Station Name Arrival Time Departure Time Distance (In KM) New Delhi — 1705 0 Kanpur Central 21:48 21:53 440 Mughal Sarai JN 1:55 2:05 786 Gaya JN 4:18 4:21 989 Koderma 5:22 5:24 1066 Bokaro Steel City 7:35 7:40 1191 Tatanagar JN 1035 10:40 1342 Kharagpur JN 12:25 12:40 1476 Balasore 1402 14:04 1595 Bhadrak 15:12 15:14 1657 Cuttack 1633 16:35 1772 Bhubaneswar 17:00 — 1800
1. The longest run for the train between the two successive halts is
• Mughal Sarai JN – Gaya JN
• New Delhi – Kanpur Central
• Kanpur Central – Mughal Sarai JN

With the run is of 440 km, the longest run is between New Delhi – Kanpur Central.

So, Option B

1. The average speed that the train maintained between two successive stations was the highest between
• Kanpur Central – Mughal Sarai JN
• Mughal Sarai JN – Gaya JN
• New Delhi – Kanpur Central
• Bokaro Steel City – Tatanagar JN

The average speed of 93.22 km/h is the highest between New Delhi – Kanpur Central.

So, Option C

1. The average speed that the train maintained between New Delhi and Bhubaneswar was nearly equal to
• 72 km/h
• 74 km/h
• 75 km/h
• 82 km/h

The average speed that the train maintained between New Delhi and Bhubaneswar = 1800 km/24 hrs. = 75 km/h.

So, Option C

1. If we consider a journey that begins in New Delhi and ends in Bhubaneswar, the train has the longest halt at
• Kanpur Central
• Mughal Sarai JN
• Tata Nagar JN
• Kharagpur JN

The train has the longest halt of 15 minutes at Kharagpur JN.

So, Option D

1. The train begins its return journey from Bhubaneswar to New Delhi Seventeen hours after it has arrived at Bhubaneswar. If the train left New Delhi on Tuesday on what day will it journey have returned to New Delhi? (Assume that on the return that train maintains the same average speed as on the onward journey).
• Thursday
• Friday
• Saturday Anchor
• Sunday Anchor

Friday

So, Option D

The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country (in million US \$) from 1991 – 1992 to 1998 – 1999.

1. The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserve is above the average reserve to those in which the reserve is below the average reserve is?
• 2 : 6
• 3 : 4
• 3 : 5
• 4 : 4

Average foreign exchange reserves over the given period = 3480 million US \$.

The country had reserves above 3480 million US \$ during the years 1992-93, 1996-97 and 1997-98. i.e., for 3 years and below 3480 million US S during the years 1991-92, 1993-94, 1994-95, 1995-56 and 1998-99 i.e., for 5 years. Hence, required ratio = 3:5.

So, Option C

1. The foreign exchange reserve in 1997-98 was how many times that in 1994-95?
• 0.7
• 1.2
• 1.4
• 1.5

Required ratio = 5040/3360 = 1.5

So, Option D

1. For which year, the percent increase of foreign exchange reserve over the previous year, is the highest?
• 1992-93
• 1993-94
• 1994-95
• 1996-97

There is an increase in foreign exchange reserves during the years 1992-1993, 1994-1995, 1996-1997, 1997-1998 as compared to previous year.

The percentage increase in reserve during these years compared to previous year are :

For 1992-1993 = [(3720-2640)/2640 * 100] = 40.91%

For 1997-1995 = [(3360-2520)/2520 * 100]   = 33.33%

For 1996-1997 = [(4320-3120)/3120 * 100] = 38.46%

For 1997-1998 = [(5040-4320)/4320 * 100] = 16.67%

Clearly, the percentage increase over previous year is highest for 1992-1993.

So, Option A

1. The foreign exchange reserve in 1996-97 were approximately what percent of the average foreign exchange reserve over the period under review?
• 95%
• 110%
• 115%
• 125%

Average foreign exchange reserves over the given period

= [1/8 * (2640 + 3720 + 2520 + 3360 + 3120 + 4320 + 5040 + 3120)] million US \$

= 3480 million US \$.

Foreign exchange reserves in 1996-1997 = 4320 million US \$.

= Required percentage = (4320/3480 * 100)%

= 124.14% 125%.

So, Option D

1. What was the percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserve in 1997-98 over 1993-94
• 100
• 150
• 200
• 620

Foreign exchange reserves in 1997-1998 = 5040 million US \$.

Foreign exchange reserves in 1993-1994 = 2520 million US \$.

= Increase = (5040 – 2520) = 2520 US S.

( 2520

= Percentage Increase = (2520/2520 * 100)% = 100%

So, Option A

Study the bar graph and line graph carefully to answer the questions given below: The bar graph shows the number of males and females (in thousand) in town X during the given years.

The line graph shows the number of males and females (in thousand) in town Y during the given years.

1. What is the ratio of the average number of males in town X to the average of males in town Y for the given period?
• 269 : 282
• 265 : 281
• 265 : 283
• 265 : 282

Required Ratio

= ((50 + 52 + 55 + 53 + 55)/5)*1000 : ((53 + 54 + 55 + 58 + 62)/5)*100

= 265 : 282

So, Option D

1. In which of the following years, is the percentage increase or decrease in the number of females for town Y the minimum?
• 2015
• 2014
• 2012
• 2013

The percentage increase or decrease in the number of females for town Y are as under;

2012 = ((52-50)/50)*100 = 1%

2013 = ((54-52)/52)*100 = 3.85%

2014 = ((56-54)/54)*100= 3.70%

2015 = ((55-56)/56)*100= 1.78%

Hence, minimum is in 2015.

So, Option A

1. The population of town X in 2011 and 2012 together is approximately what percent of the population of town Y in 2014 and 2015 together?
• 86.6%
• 81.6%
• 89.6%
• 84.5%

= ((50+49) + (52 + 49))/((58 + 56) +(62 + 55))*100

= 200/231 * 100 = 86.6%

So, Option A

1. Find the number of years in which the number of females in town X and Y are less than their respective average numbers.
• One, Two
• Two, Two
• None
• Three, Two

Total number of females for town X (49 + 49 + 52 + 53 + 52) = 255/5 = 51

Total number of females for town Y (50 + 51 + 55 + 56 + 55) = 267/5 = 53.4

Average number of females for town X = 51

Average number of females for town Y = 53.4

So, 2011 and 2012 are two desired years for town X. Also, 2011 and 2012 are two desired years for town Y.

So, Option D

1. In which of the following pairs of years is the difference in the number of males and females the maximum for town Y and minimum for town Y and minimum for town X respectively?
• 2011 and 2014
• 2015 and 2011
• 2015 and 2014
• 2013 and 2015

Difference between the population of males and females :

 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 X 1000 3000 3000 0 3000 Y 3000 2000 1000 2000 7000

Desired pair is 2015 and 2014.

So, Option C

A cosmetic company provides five different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh number of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the following bar graph.

Sales (in lakh number of packs) of five different products of Cosmetic Company during 1995 and 2000

1. The sales of lipstick in 2000 was by what percent more than the sales of nail enamels in 2000.
• 33%
• 31%
• 28%
• 22%

Required percentage is

= [(48.17 – 37.76)/37.76 * 100]%

= 27.57% = 28%

So, Option C

1. During the period 1995-2000, the minimum rate of increase in sales in the case of?
• Shampoos
• Nail enamels
• Talcum Powder
• Lipstick

The percentage increase from 1995 to 2000 for various product is:

Lipsticks = [(48.17 – 20.15)/20.15 * 100]% = 139.06%

Nail Enamels = [(37.76 – 5.93)/5.93 * 100]% = 536.76%

Talcum Powders = [(29.14 – 14.97)/14.97 * 100]% = 97.66%

Shampoos = [(12.21 – 7.88)/7.88 * 100]%  = 54.95% or 55%

Conditioners = [(10.18 – 5.01)/5.01 * 100]% = 103.39%

The minimum rate of increase in sales from 1995 to 2000 is in the case of Shampoos

So, Option A

1. The sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to 2000 in the case of :
• Lipstick
• Nail enamels
• Talcum Powder
• Shampoos

The sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to 2000 in the case of shampoos.

So, Option D

1. The sales of conditioners in 1995 was by what percent less than the sales of shampoos in 1995. (Round of nearest)
• 57%
• 36%
• 29%
• 25%

Required percentage is

= [(7.88 – 5.01)/7.88 * 100]%

= 36.42% or 36%.

So, Option D

1. What is the approximate ratio of the sales of nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of talcum powder in 1995?
• 7 : 2
• 5 : 2
• 4 : 3
• 2 : 1

Required Ratio = 37.76/14.97 = 5/2 = 2.5

So, Option D

Study the following table to answer the 5 questions that are given below it.

 Items of Expenditure/ Year Salary Fuel and Transport Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes 2014 288 98 3 23.4 83 2015 342 112 2.52 32.5 108 2016 324 101 3.84 41.6 74 2017 336 133 3.38 36.4 88 2018 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

1. The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately :
• 4 : 7
• 10 : 13
• 15 : 18
• 5 : 8

Required Ratio = (83 + 108 + 74 + 88 + 98)/(98 + 112 + 101 + 133 + 142)

= 451/586 =  1/1.3 = 10/13

So, Option B

1. The total expenditure of the Company over these items during the year 2016 is
• ₹ 544.44 Lakhs
• ₹ 501.11 Lakhs
• ₹ 446.46 Lakhs
• ₹ 487.87 Lakhs

Total expenditure of the Company during 2016

= ₹ (324 + 101 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 74) Lakhs

= ₹ 544.44 Lakhs

So, Option A

1. What is the average amount of interest per year which the Company had to pay during this period?
• ₹ 36.66 Lakhs
• ₹ 32.43 Lakhs
• ₹ 33.72 Lakhs
• ₹ 35.69 Lakhs

Average amount of interest paid by the Company during the given period

= ₹ [(23.4 + 32.5 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4)/5] Lakhs

= ₹ (183.3/5) lakhs = ₹ 36.66 Lakhs.

So, Option A

1. Total expenditure on all these items in 2014 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2018?
• 62 %
• 69 %
• 71 %
• 73 %

Required percentage is

= [(288 + 98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83)/(420 + 142 + 3.96 + 49.4 + 98) × 100] %

= 495.4/713.36 * 100%  = 69.45%

So, Option D

1. The total amount of bonus paid by the Company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
• 0.1 %
• 1 %
• 1.11%
• 1.25 %

Required percentage is

= [(3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 3.68 + 3.96)/(288 + 342 + 324 + 336 + 420) * 100]%

= 17/1710 * 100% = 1%

So, Option D

1. NIC (National Informatic Centre) Data centers head office established in
• Mumbai
• Bangalore
• Delhi
• Chennai

NIC has set up state-of-the-art National Data Centers at NIC Headquarter Delhi, Pune and Hyderabad and 3 small data centers at various state capitals to provide services to the Government at all levels.

So, Option C

1. Mapping of Data is :
• Create of Data by Maps
• Representation of Data
• Copy of Data
• Transfer if Data

Representation of Data by Maps is Called Mapping.

So, Option D

1. Data Scrubbing is :
• As a comprehensive approach to data management to ensure quality, integrity, accessibility, and security of the data.
• Updating of data management strategies to ensure that the data are accurate, relevant, timely, and complete for the purposes they are intended to be used.
• The process of amending or removing data in a database that is incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or duplicated
• None of These

Data Scrubbing is also known as Data Cleaning. It is the process of amending or removing data in a database that is incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or duplicated.

So, Option C

1. The draft personal data protection Bill 2018 was presented to
• The Ministry of Electronic and Information Technology
• The Ministry of the Corporate Affairs
• The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
• The Ministry of Home Affairs

The draft personal data protection Bill 2018 was presented to the Ministry of Electronic and Information Technology on 27 July 2018. It is submitted by the Justice B.N. Srikrishna-headed expert panel has proposed that critical personal data of Indian citizens be processed in centers located within the country.

So, Option A

5. NASSCOM refers to :

• The National Association of Service & Software Companies
• The National Association of Sendee & Software Corporation
• The National Association of Software & Service Companies
• The National Association of Software & Sendee Corporation